2013年8月30日星期五

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Code d'Examen: 3M0-700
Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified IP Telephony Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the easiest way for the NBX system administrator to set up calling permissions and/or
restrictions for a group of users?
A. Define a Type of Service (ToS) and then assign the ToS to each user
B. Define a Class of Service (CoS) and then assign the CoS to each user
C. Define a User Configuration and then assign the Configuration to each user
D. Define a Type of Service (ToS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
ToS
E. Define a Class of Service (CoS), define a new group for the users and then assign the group to the new
CoS
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two are features of the NBX NetSet Administration Utility? (Choose two.)
A. Allows users to sign on with a username of "user" and use their voicemail password for access
B. Is found on 3Com's NBX systems, as well as, licensed 3rd party Ethernet-based telephony systems
C. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.190.
D. Can be accessed through the default IP address of 192.168.1.191.
E. Allows the administrator to sign on with a username of "administrator" and a password of "0000" for
access
Answer: CE

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NO.3 Which three are maintenance alert features on the NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Can send alert to voicemail
B. Can send alert to a pager or email
C. Can send alert to 3rd party voice messaging systems
D. Can be configured to send alerts to up to 15 mailboxes
E. Can be configured to send an alert for any physical device failure
F. Maintenance alert function is supported on the NBX 100 Communications System only
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 Which four are characteristics or requirements for NBX Bridge Station Appearance (BSA) assuming
only 3102 business phones are used in the customer location? (Choose four.)
A. Maps a primary phone to a secondary phone
B. Only need to configure the primary phone settings
C. Up to 16 extensions can be mapped to a common secondary phone
D. To configure BSA settings select Device Configuration / Telephones then select Button Mappings
E. Either phone can
Answer a call, as incoming primary-phone calls appear on primary and secondary phone
F. Incoming calls to primary phone are automatically transferred to secondary phone based on
time-of-day settings
Answer: ACDE

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NO.5 Which two are accurate statements? (Choose two.)
A. NBX 100 supports 48 VTLs
B. NBX V5000 supports 48 VTLs
C. NBX V3000 supports 48 VTLs
D. NBX V5000 supports 72 VTLs
Answer: BC

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NO.6 How does the NBX administrator load a local country Dial Plan, for example, Norway or Portugal?
A. Dial Plan / Tables/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
B. Dial Plan / Operations/ User-Defined File ?select country and click Import
C. Dial Plan / Tables/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
D. Dial Plan / Operations/ Default File ?select country from drop-down menu and click Import
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which four are features of the NBX QSIG Basic Service support? (Choose four.)
A. Recommended for use on a PSTN public network
B. Passes Caller ID information across QSIG tie lines
C. NBX system only functions in Slave Mode operation
D. Used to nest traditional PBX systems behind an NBX
E. Supports fractional QSIG on the NBX Digital Line Cards
F. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling, useful for implementing tie trunks
G. Connects 3rd party PBX systems with Master Mode support to an NBX system
Answer: BCFG

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NO.8 Which two are features of an NBX Calling Group? (Choose two.)
A. Member phones ring simultaneously for incoming calls
B. Calling Groups are the same as NBX Key Mode configuration
C. Up to 100 Calling Groups can be configured on an NBX 100 system
D. NBX administrator can define "ring progression" for a Calling Group
E. Member login/logout password is defined by NBX administrator using NetSet
Answer: AE

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NO.9 Which four Call Forward user settings are available to a user logged into NetSet on a NBX
Communication System? (Choose four.)
A. Forward calls to voicemail box
B. Forward calls to an e-mail inbox
C. Disconnect (no forwarding) calls
D. Forward calls to another phone number
E. Forward calls to an Automated Attendant
F. Do not ring, which places the caller into voice mail
G. Forward calls to the LCD Directory so the caller can contact another employee if they choose
Answer: ACDE

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NO.10 Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems?
(Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data network WAN
link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each site, users can
call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
C. With a single NBX system at HQ and pcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call to/from
HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via a
Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a NBX system and NBX ConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from the sites
via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
Answer: ADE

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NO.11 The NBX Dial Plan supports Direct Inward Dialing/Dialed Number Identification Service (DID/DNIS).
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
C. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
D. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
Answered at a phone
E. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end of the
day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
F. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if they are
logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
Answer: ABD

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NO.13 Which two devices are not supported by an NBX Analog Terminal Card (ATC) or Analog Terminal
Adapter (ATA)? (Choose two.)
A. Modem
B. FAX machine
C. Cordless phone
D. Credit card reader
E. External bell or pager
F. Standard telephone that requires a DTMF connection
Answer: AD

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NO.14 How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
B. NBX phones tag voice packets using DiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
D. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic before
forwarding data packets
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which three best describe PRI QSIG? (Choose three.)
A. For use on PSTN only
B. Is a proprietary 3Com protocol
C. Designed for IP-PBX to TAPI Server
D. For use on private lines, leased lines or VPN only
E. Optimized for inter-PBX signaling for tie line support
F. Requires clocking (Master mode) by one end station (PBX)
Answer: DEF

3COM   3M0-700 examen   3M0-700

NO.16 Which of the following terms are associated with Emergency 911?
A. 911 Database
B. ACT -Automatic Caller Tracking
C. PSAP-Public Safety Access Point
D. ALI -Automatic Location Identification
E. ANI-Automatic Number Identification
F. PEAP -Public Emergency Access Point
Answer: ACDE

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NO.17 Which three are prioritization mechanisms used with the NBX Communication Systems? (Choose
three.)
A. IP TOS
B. Diff Serv
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. ANSI 96/RS232
Answer: ABD

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NO.18 Which four are features of the NBX Analog Line Card? (Choose four.)
A. An NBX V5000 chassis supports only one Analog Line card at a time
B. The NBX Auto Discover Line Cards function can be used to find newly installed Analog Line Cards
C. In Key System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card can be mapped to one or more
telephones
D. Its Power Failure Jack provides access to the telephone CO in case of a NBX power failure
E. By default, when a port is mapped to multiple telephones, calls will ring at the lowest extension first,
then to the next extension, until the call is
Answered
F. In PBX System Mode, CO lines connected to an Analog Line Card are pooled and allocated by the Call
Processor for use by any phone for outbound calls
G. In Hybrid Mode, incoming calls go to an Auto Attendant only and CO lines are pooled and allocated by
the Call Processor for use by any phone on the system
Answer: BCDF

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NO.19 A manager at extension 3002 has asked you to setup a NBX Communication System to allow an
assistant at extension 1010 to filter calls. You have decided the best way to do this is Bridged Station
Appearance. You have already setup the primary phones button mappings. Which is the correct
extension number to add to the secondary phone Bridged Extension Number Field?
A. 1010
B. 1010-2
C. 3002
D. 3002-2
Answer: C

3COM   3M0-700   3M0-700   3M0-700

NO.20 Which three are true statements concerning Silence Suppression? (Choose 3.)
A. Enabling Silence Suppression prioritizes voice traffic
B. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system only
C. Can be enabled or disabled only for individual telephones
D. Enabling Silence Suppression reduces network traffic
E. Can be enabled or disabled for the entire system, or for individual telephones and line card ports
F. A device that detects silence in a conversation will not send any packets to the other device during the
period of silence
G. A device that detects silence in conversation sends a small packet with a "silence indicator,"rather than
a full packet of "digitized silence"
Answer: DEG

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Dernières ASTQB ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1
Nom d'Examen: ASTQB (ISTQB Advanced Level Test manager Exam)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager.
Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review
meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items.
# Verify code compliance to coding standards
# Verify comment usage frequency
# Review number of function calls
# Review logical decision points in the application
What is the purpose of this meeting?
A. Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early.
B. Explain the testers how the program should work.
C. Get an agreement to release the partially completed software to the testing department.
D. Explain the complexity of the code.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Software Testers in a software development company installed the new release on test
systems and started the testing phase.
Testers verified the new functionality, performed necessary security testing and completed planned
regression tests.
During the last week of testing, testers noticed that the memory utilization was more than 95% on
two of the test
servers (out of 4 servers). This behavior was not observed during the first weeks of the testing phase.
As a test analyst, what would you do?
A. Ignore the problem because other two servers are okay (memory utilization is normal)
B. Report the problem to the developer immediately and create a defect report because it could be
a problem related to memory leak.
C. Reboot the system so that memory utilization will come back to normal. Not report it as a
problem.
D. Create a defect report and reboot the system to correct the memory problem.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements are false?
I. Test execution starts when the system entry criteria are met (or waived) and test
execution ends when exit criteria are met.
II. System test environment creation might start during system design in V-model III.
Long term prospects needs to be considered when selecting test process or tools. IV.
Daily/weekly scrum meetings are part of agile testing method.
A. I and II and false.
B. II, III and IV are false
C. I, II, III are false
D. None of them are false
Answer: D

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NO.4 Select the correct statement related to test techniques;
I. Software program should be running to perform dynamic analysis
II. Software program should be running to perform static analysis
III. Control flow analysis is part of dynamic analysis
IV. Data flow analysis is part of static analysis
A. I, II true. III, IV false
B. I, III true. II, IV false
C. I, IV true. II, III false
D. I true. II, III, IV false
Answer: C

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NO.5 Integrated Solutions Inc. is a software testing company with 20 testers. One of their clients
provided a software release and requested to test the software within 2 weeks.
The client did not provide any specifications of the software or any documentation.
However, Integrated Solutions Inc. testers have tested similar releases from the same client in the
past. As a Senior Software Tester, what is your best approach?
A. Test the product using "Defect and Experienced Based" techniques like error guessing,
exploratory and attacks.
B. Request for more time.
C. Explain the client why you cannot test the software.
D. Test only performance of the software.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Select the correct statement;
A. Testing processes are interconnected and related to activities like requirements
engineering, software development, etc.
B. Testing tasks cannot be concurrent.
C. Requirements engineering and software testing are two isolated activities.
D. Testing activities / processes do not have to be aligned to the chosen software
development lifecycle model.
Answer: A

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NO.7 According to ISTQB syllabus, systems of systems;
I. Contain interconnected hardware, software applications and communications.
II. Include big bang merging of independent collaborating systems to avoid creating the
entire system from scratch.
III. Can be less reliable than individual systems
IV. Characteristics include; long duration of projects, version management and regression
tests at systems of systems level.
A. I, II and IV are true.
B. I, II are true and III is false.
C. I, III, and IV are true, II is false.
D. II,III and IV are true, I is false.
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler - Business Partner Data Mining Associate Exam)
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NO.1 True or false: association models require all fields used to be defined with the role of both.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 How many phases are in the CRISP-DM Process Methodology?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Answer: C

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NO.3 What will occur if the deployment data has a very different range than the data that was used
in modeling?
A. The model will underpredict.
B. The model will overpredict.
C. The model may overpredict or underpredict.
D. The model nugget will automatically nullify those cases that are out of range .075.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which node can be used to impute (estimate) missing values?
A. Data Audit node
B. Balance node
C. Filler node
D. Reclassify node
Answer: A

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NO.5 True or false: auto checking for invalid values can be done on the Type tab in any Source node.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: IBQH001
Nom d'Examen: IBQH (International Board for Quality in Healthcare)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

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NO.1 To make a risk assessment of a procedure to choose your personal protective equipment, all of the
following must be kept in consideration except
A. The nature of the procedure
B. The risk of exposure to blood or body fluids
C. The risk of exposure to pathogenic micro-organisms
D. The race of the patient
Answer: D

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NO.2 In a debate about the use of clean disposable gloves versus not using any gloves while giving
subcutaneous injections, which of the following can mostly help the infection control physician make a
decision?
A. Risk assessment
B. National guidelines
C. Cost benefit and availability of the gloves in the healthcare facility
D. The decision provided by the infection control committee
Answer: A

IBQH   certification IBQH001   certification IBQH001

NO.3 An infection control team conducted a refreshment training day for surgeons and nurses of the
operating theatre. All of the following were recommended for sound infection control practice in their
everyday practice except
A. Open foot wear must never be worn in the operating room
B. Personnel attending the patient should not leave the theatre until gown, mask, gloves and goggles are
all removed
C. If the gloves are torn, they should be removed immediately and other sterile gloves are worn
D. Double sterile gloves are recommended for all surgeons involved in the surgery
Answer: C

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NO.4 Project management processes can be organized into
A. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
B. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration
C. Designing, developing, testing, implementing and controlling
D. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and Implementation
Answer: A

certification IBQH   certification IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.5 To establish effective infection control in a health care facility which of the following is critical?
A. A physician and a nurse with responsibilities for infection control
B. A manual of critical infection control policies and an educational program for staff
C. Senior management commitment
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which organization is closest to a functional organization?
A. Strong matrix organization
B. Balanced matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Weak matrix organization
Answer: D

IBQH   certification IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.7 The Infection control team in a hospital carried out a survey to estimate the incidence of health care
workers colonized by MRSA. During presenting the data in a meeting of the team, what is the most
important information they should look for while analyzing the results of the survey?
A. Gender of the HCW colonized by MRSA
B. The ward where MRSA colonized HCW work
C. Type of patients they serve
D. Site of MRSA colonization (nose, hands or other site)
Answer: B

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NO.8 The most important procedure for the prevention of infection from germs and viruses is
A. Wearing gloves
B. Wearing surgical mask
C. Effective hand washing
D. Wearing protective eyewear
Answer: C

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NO.9 During the team building phase in paediatric department, which of the following best describes the
actions of the team?
A. The group is uncertain of their duties
B. Members prioritize and perform tasks
C. The team leader usually delegates
D. The team functions run smoothly
Answer: A

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NO.10 Your company's largest client has just completed an audit of your quality system. Three major
deficiencies were identified, and you risk losing this client if the problems are not corrected. As quality
manager the best plan of action is
A. Identify and correct the root cause of the deficiencies and implement changes to improve the quality
system
B. Reprimand the employees that caused the deficiencies
C. Wait until another client finds the same deficiencies, and then form a task team to investigate the
problems
D. Promise the client that the problems will be corrected
Answer: C

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NO.11 Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document. Which of the following is the
best use of this document?
A. Planning record for the current project
B. Planning for future projects
C. Informing the team about what the project manager has done
D. Informing the team about the project management plan
Answer: B

certification IBQH   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.12 At an infection control meeting, the discussion was focused on the new neurosurgery department
which will be opened soon. Regarding the infection control measures, which must be taken to minimize
the risk of transmission of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) and other prion diseases which of the
following statements is incorrect?
A. Flash sterilization is not effective in sterilizing equipment contaminated by prions
B. For semi critical items, immersion in 1 N sodium hydroxide for an hour is sufficient
C. Steam sterilization by gravity displacement autoclave 132 ¡ãC for 30 minutes is te preferred method
D. Prevacuum sterilizer at 134¡ãC for 18 minutes is effective
Answer: B

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NO.13 A project is defined as
A. An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people, and constrained by
limited resources
B. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. An objective based effort of temporary nature
Answer: C

IBQH   IBQH001   certification IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.14 Standard precautions are measures of infection control that are used to reduce or eliminate exposure
to infectious agents .They include all of the following except
A. Work practices
B. Engineering controls
C. Personal protective equipment
D. Isolation of patients infected by contagious diseases
Answer: D

IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.15 A case of hepatic cirrhosis was admitted to the ER. The patient had an attack of hematemesis few
minutes after admission and a large blood spill covered the floor .The nurse in charge brought the blood
spill kit and removed the blood. All the following are component of the blood spill kit except
A. Diluted chlorine solution
B. Goggle and plastic apron
C. Sterile gloves
D. Absorbent disposable tissue
Answer: C

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NO.16 Effective communication is needed for
A. getting things done
B. Conferring with others to come to terms with them or to reach an agreement
C. The exchange of information
D. Taking decisions independently
Answer: C

IBQH examen   IBQH001   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.17 One of the most important duties that the project manager performs is
A. Cost management
B. Integration management
C. Quality management
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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NO.18 All of the following occur during the planning process group except
A. Develop project charter
B. Create WBS
C. Estimate costs
D. Sequence activities
Answer: A

IBQH examen   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.19 In the matrix management organization, which of the following is true?
A. The functional manager is responsible for improvement of employees ¯ sk ill s
B. The project manager is responsible for the employees' annual appraisal
C. The employee is responsible for his or her own skills improvement
D. The project manager is responsible for employees' skills improvement
Answer: A

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   certification IBQH001

NO.20 Project success depends on a number of interrelated factors including time, cost, and scope control.
The success of any project depends primarily on.?
A. Customer compromise in defining his needs
B. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Customer-supplier relationship
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: PEGACSA-v6.2
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 213 Q&As

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NO.1 On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer: D

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.2 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database? (Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen

NO.3 (True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen

NO.4 What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is executed
Answer: D

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   certification PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.5 Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format? (Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer: B

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.6 A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external application acting as
a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a ______________________?
(Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.7 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

Pegasystems examen   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.8 Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C

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NO.10 The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer: A,C

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.11 Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer: A

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.12 Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to support PRPC
connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
Answer: B,D

Pegasystems   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.14 What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer: A

Pegasystems examen   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.15 Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
Answer: B,D

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   certification PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.16 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen

NO.17 Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during development of
a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A,B,D

certification Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.18 An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the data to the
database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer: D

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen   PEGACSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSA-v6.2   PEGACSA-v6.2 examen

NO.19 Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer: A,D

Pegasystems   PEGACSA-v6.2   certification PEGACSA-v6.2

NO.20 Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer: A

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ISQI meilleur examen CTFL-001, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CTFL-001
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   CTFL-001 examen   CTFL-001

NO.2 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI   CTFL-001   CTFL-001   CTFL-001   CTFL-001 examen   CTFL-001

NO.3 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

certification ISQI   CTFL-001   CTFL-001   CTFL-001

NO.4 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

ISQI examen   CTFL-001   CTFL-001   CTFL-001

NO.5 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI   CTFL-001   certification CTFL-001   CTFL-001

NO.7 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

ISQI   CTFL-001 examen   certification CTFL-001   CTFL-001 examen

NO.8 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

ISQI examen   CTFL-001 examen   CTFL-001 examen

NO.9 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

ISQI   CTFL-001   certification CTFL-001   CTFL-001

NO.10 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: PC0-001
Nom d'Examen: Peoplecert (ITIL 2011 Foundation )
Questions et réponses: 131 Q&As

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NO.1 In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements
against
targets?
A. Operational level agreement(OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement(SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM)
Answer: D

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NO.2 What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service
provider to deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable
the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
A. Before the change is approved
B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: CSSBB
Nom d'Examen: ASQ (Six Sigma Black Belt Certification - CSSBB)
Questions et réponses: 227 Q&As

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NO.1 This is an example of part of a:
A. QFD Matrix
B. Activity Network Diagram
C. Interrelationship Diagram
D. Affinity Diagram
Answer: A

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NO.2 The leader in the quality movement who recommended that organizations ° e li m i na t e nu m e ri ca l quo t as
for the work force and numerical goals for management. ± :
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: F

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NO.3 Perform a risk analysis to determine the expected profit or (loss) from a project which has four possible
disjoint outcomes: Outcome A shows a profit of $340,000 and has a probability of 0.25 Outcome B shows
a profit of $120,000 and has a probability of 0.40 Outcome C shows a loss of $40,000 and has a
probability of 0.10 Outcome D shows a profit of $100,000 and has a probability of 0.25 .?
A. $130,000
B. $520,000
C. $154,000
D. ($168,000)
E. none of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 A team has been asked to reduce the cycle time for a process. The team decides to collect baseline
data. It will do this by:
A. seeking ideas for improvement from all stakeholders
B. researching cycle times for similar processes within the organization
C. obtaining accurate cycle times for the process as it currently runs
D. benchmarking similar processes outside the organization
Answer: C

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NO.5 The quality leader responsible for the term Total Quality Management (TQM):
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 Customer segmentation refers to:
A. dividing a particular customer into parts that are more easily understood
B. grouping customers by one or more criteria
C. maintaining secure customer listings to minimize communication among them
D. eliminating or °cu tti ng o f ¡± cu st om ers w i th po o r cr e d it histor
Answer: B

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NO.7 SWOT is an acronym for:
A. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
B. statistics without tables
C. sensory Weibull ordinal tools
D. success wields optimal teams
E. none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.8 The support for an important quality initiative was lacking in congress until Reagan ¯ s Seretary of
Commerce was killed in a horseback riding accident in 1987. That initiative was:
A. assigning National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST) quality oversight duties
B. °consensus o f t he H ous ¡± pr o cl am a t i o n fo r De m i g¡¯ s 14 po i n t s C . nging National Bureau of
Standards to NIST.
D. authorizing the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) to join with the International Standards
Organization (ISO) to promulgate standards.
E. none of the above.
Answer: E

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NO.9 George is an employee of Black, Inc. John is George ¯ s i n t e r na l cus t o m e r. W h i ch s t a t e m en t i s tr ue?
A. John is employed by Black, Inc.
B. John is employed by another company that supplies material to Black, Inc.
C. John is employed by a company that purchases material from black, Inc.
D. John is employed by another company that has a fiduciary agreement with Black, Inc.
E. John is employed by another company as an internal auditor.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Causes in a cause and effect diagram often include management, measurement systems, mother
nature and the four standard causes:
A. man, material, methods, machines
B. man, manufacturing, methods, material
C. marketing, methods, material, machines
D. man, material, millennium, machines
E. none of the above
Answer: A

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NO.11 The word °cha m p i o ¡± in t h e co nt e x t o f S ix Si gm a proj e cts refers to
A. the team that has had the most impact on the bottom line.
B. the person who has coordinated teams most effectively
C. the individual who has outpaced all others in six sigma knowledge
D. none of the above
Answer: D

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NO.12 Customer requirement #3 has a ______________ relationship with technical feature #3.
A. strong
B. moderate
C. weak
Answer: B

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NO.13 A quality leader who did extensive work with Japanese industry is:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Deming
D. Ohno
E. Taguchi
F. all of the above
G. none of the above
Answer: F

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NO.14 The quality leader most associated with the concept of robustness:
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Crosby
D. Feigenbaum
E. Taguchi
F. none of the above
Answer: E

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NO.15 In a series of linked processes and associated feedback loops the product or service flows ________
and the information flows ________.
A. rapidly, slower
B. downstream, upstream
C. evenly, digitally
D. sooner, later
E. to the customer, from the supplier
F. none of the above
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: MSC-431
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Lean Six Sigma Black Belt)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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NO.3 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.5 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.6 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: S90-09A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture Lab)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization and Logic Centralization patterns are being
applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice document from Service Consumer A
to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime performance of the service
composition?
A.The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied so that the invoice document sent by Service
Consumer A is transformed into an invoice document that is compliant with the XML Schema B used by
Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can be applied again to ensure that the invoice
document sent by Service A is compliant with XML Schema A used by Service B.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.The Standardized Service Contract principle can be applied to the service contract of Service A so that
it is redesigned to use XML Schema A. This would make it capable of receiving the invoice document from
Service Consumer A and sending the invoice document to Service B without the need to further apply the
Data Model Transformation pattern.
D.None of the above.
Answer:C

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NO.2 The Client and Vendor services are agnostic services that are both currently part of multiple service
compositions. As a result, these services are sometimes subjected to concurrent access by multiple
service consumers.
The Client service is an entity service that primarily provides data access logic to a client database but
also provides some calculation logic associated with determining a client's credit rating. The Vendor
service is also an entity service that provides some data access logic but can also generate various
dynamic reports.
After reviewing historical statistics about the runtime activity of the two services, it was discovered that the
majority of concurrent runtime access is related to the processing of business rules. With the Client
service, it is the calculation logic that is frequently required and with the Vendor service it is the dynamic
reporting logic that needs to be accessed separately from the actual report generation.
Currently, due to the increasing amount of concurrent access by service consumers, the runtime
performance of both the Client and Vendor services has worsened and has therefore reduced their
effectiveness as service composition members. What steps can be taken to solve this problem without
introducing new services?
A.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied by extracting the business rule logic from the Client
and Vendor services and placing it into a new Rules service. This will naturally improve the runtime
performance of the Client and Vendor services because they will no longer be subjected to the high
concurrent access of service consumers that require access to the business rules logic.
B.The Redundant Implementation pattern can be applied to the Client and Vendor services, thereby
establishing duplicate implementations that can be accessed when a service reaches its runtime usage
threshold. The Intermediate Routing pattern can be further applied to provide load balancing logic that
can, at runtime, determine which of the redundant service implementations is the least busy for a given
service consumer request.
C.The Rules Centralization pattern can be applied together with the Redundant Implementation pattern to
establish a scalable Rules service that is redundantly implemented and therefore capable of supporting
high concurrent access from many service consumers. The Service Abstraction principle can be further
applied to hide the implementation details of the Rules service.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Service A is an entity service with a functional context dedicated to invoice-related processing. Service
B is a utility service that provides generic data access to a database.
In this service composition architecture, Service Consumer A sends a SOAP message containing an
invoice XML document to Service A (1). Service A then sends the invoice XML document to Service B (2),
which then writes the invoice document to a database.
The data model used by Service Consumer A to represent the invoice document is based on XML
Schema A. The service contract of Service A is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema B. The service contract for Service B is designed to accept invoice documents based on XML
Schema A. The database to which Service B needs to write the invoice record only accepts entire
business documents in Comma Separated Value (CSV) format.
Due to the incompatibility of the XML schemas used by the services, the sending of the invoice document
from Service Consumer A through to Service B cannot be accomplished using the services as they
currently exist. Assuming that the Contract Centralization pattern is being applied and that the Logic
Centralization is not being applied, what steps can be taken to enable the sending of the invoice
document from Service Consumer A to the database without adding logic that will increase the runtime
performance requirements of the service composition?
A.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to use XML Schema B so that the SOAP message it sends is
compliant with the service contract of Service A. The Data Model Transformation pattern can then be
applied to transform the SOAP message sent by Service A so that it conforms to the XML Schema A used
by Service B. The Standardized Service Contract principle must then be applied to Service B and Service
Consumer A so that the invoice XML document is optimized to avoid unnecessary validation.
B.The service composition can be redesigned so that Service Consumer A sends the invoice document
directly to Service B. Because Service Consumer A and Service B use XML Schema A, the need for
transformation logic is avoided. This naturally applies the Service Loose Coupling principle because
Service Consumer A is not required to send the invoice document in a format that is compliant with the
database used by Service B.
C.Service Consumer A can be redesigned to write the invoice document directly to the database. This
reduces performance requirements by avoiding the involvement of Service A and Service B. It further
supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle by ensuring that Service Consumer A hides
the details of the data access logic required to write to the database.
D.None of the above.
Answer:B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-09A   S90-09A   S90-09A

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