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Code d'Examen: 250-308
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 for Exchange)
Questions et réponses: 265 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is a benefit of deploying Enterprise Vault?
A. It provides an alternative backup database.
B. It provides a way to help address corporate risk.
C. It provides a way to help address access control.
D. It provides an additional Exchange mail relay.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
If an organization uses a Mailbox Archiving Policy that uses the site schedule, how would the task run?
A. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run until it is complete or until 6 p.m. the next day.
B. It would archive 1000 items for each mailbox each hour starting at 6 p.m. until complete or until 6 a.m.
the next day.
C. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run every hour until 6 a.m. the next day.
D. It would start every day at 6 p.m., synchronize all mailboxes, and then run until it is complete or until 6
a.m. the next day.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator wants to allow users to delete from archives. After installing the
EV Outlook Add-In, the EV toolbar fails to display the ability to delete archived items. The desktop policy
specifically enables the Delete from Vault functionality on the toolbar.
Which two actions should the administrator perform to correct this issue? (Select two.)
A. add the line "AllowDelete=1" to the WebApp.ini file located in the EV installation directory
B. uncheck "Prevent deletion of archived items in this category" from the retention category properties in
the Vault Administration Console
C. check "Users can delete items from their Archives" in the Site properties window in the Vault
Administration Console
D. restart the Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) to apply the changes in WebApp.ini
E. use the Mailbox Archiving Task to synchronize user mailboxes with the new policy settings
Answer: CE

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NO.4 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which mailbox does the Archiving Task use to connect to the Exchange Server?
A. any mailbox on the Exchange Server
B. the journal mailbox on the Exchange Server
C. the Exchange System mailbox
D. the Enterprise Vault System mailbox
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a benefit of archiving mailboxes?
A. enhances PST functionality in users' Outlook profiles
B. allows a central repository for users to access all corporate email
C. centralizes management of archived corporate email
D. removes the need for Exchange mailbox quotas
Answer: C

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NO.7 After an email is archived for 90 days, a company decides to remove shortcuts from users' mailboxes.
Archived email is retained for five years within the archive.
Which three methods provide access to archived email when the shortcut is removed? (Select three.)
A. Search Vaults
B. Outlook search
C. Google desktop
D. Browser search
E. Archive Explorer
Answer: ADE

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NO.8 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE

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NO.10 Enterprise Vault can archive eligible items in mailboxes based on which attributes?
A. mailbox size and state
B. item age and importance level
C. item age and mailbox size
D. mailbox state and utilization
Answer: D

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NO.11 Refer to the Exhibit.
An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator needs statistics about how frequently items are accessed. EV
Reporting has been installed and configured correctly. However, when selecting the Archived Items
Access report, it displays "There is no data available to display."
What is the cause for this message to display?
A. EV Auditing is not enabled.
B. EV Operations Manager is not configured.
C. EV Reports Configuration has not run.
D. The EV Fingerprint Database is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Refer to the Exhibit.
An organization is using safety copies on their Mailbox Archiving Vault Stores in Enterprise Vault (EV).
Users are prevented from manually archiving or restoring archived items. The organization wants to
minimize the time that users see pending shortcuts in their mailboxes using Outlook.
In what order should the administrator run backups and archiving?
A. back up Exchange, run Mailbox Archiving, back up EV
B. back up EV, run Mailbox Archiving, back up Exchange
C. back up Exchange, back up EV, run Mailbox Archiving
D. back up EV, back up Exchange, run Mailbox Archiving
Answer: A

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NO.13 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions?
(Select three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC

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NO.14 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.15 A user moves a shortcut created in Enterprise Vault (EV) from a Personal Expenses folder to a
Business folder. The folders are associated with Personal Expenses and Business retention categories,
respectively. The user notices that when the shortcut is moved, the retention category for the item
remains as Personal Expenses.
What should the administrator do to allow the item to inherit the retention period of the folder the item
moves in to?
A. EV is working as designed. To change the retention, the user must restore and rearchive the item with
the new retention category.
B. modify the options on the Moved Items tab of the Exchange Mailbox Policy to allow retention category
updates
C. right-click the mailbox folders and select Update Retention
D. within Site Properties, select the Retention Categories tab and select Update Retention upon Move
Answer: B

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NO.16 The administrator of ACME has been given a small number of PST files that have been exported from
another Enterprise Vault (EV) system that needs to be accessible from the ACME EV system.
What is the recommended method of migrating the PST files into EV?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: C

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NO.17 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers.
How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.21 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

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NO.22 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC

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NO.23 What is the Vault Store configuration result after upgrading to Enterprise Vault 8.0?
A. All Vault Stores are fingerprinted for single instancing.
B. Each Vault Store is added to its own Vault Store Group.
C. All Vault Stores are added to a Default Vault Store Group.
D. Each Vault Store is configured for partition rollover.
Answer: C

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NO.24 What is the recommended minimum number of processors for Enterprise Vault servers?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.25 A group of Enterprise Vault (EV) users can open archived shortcuts successfully. However, they are
unable to archive new items. Items selected to be stored within the vault quickly change from a pending
shortcut icon to a normal Outlook e-mail icon without an error.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ability to archive within EV has been disabled for these users.
B. The Archive Task that processes that user's Exchange server is stopped.
C. The Vault Store where the user archives are located is in Backup mode.
D. The Storage service on the EV server is stopped.
Answer: C

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NO.26 Enterprise Vault can single instance savesets between which two storage locations? (Select two.)
A. Vault Stores
B. Vault Store Groups
C. Collection Files (.cab)
D. Managed Folders
E. Index Locations
Answer: AC

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NO.27 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users.
Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.28 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML.
What is a benefit of changing the default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.29 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
Based on the information included in the Archive Properties window shown in the exhibit, why should an
administrator use the Rebuild Index Volume function?
A. A user's permissions to this archive were recently changed and the administrator wants to update the
index entries with these new permissions.
B. The index volume has failed, which prevents accessing the archived items.
C. A user that had previously delegated access to this archive no longer has this access and the index
must be updated to reflect this change.
D. The archive's indexing level has been changed from Brief to Medium and the user wants to take
advantage of searching all archived items' contents.
Answer: D

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NO.30 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies.
Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving strategies using Enterprise Vault
(EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-029
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

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NO.1 How many client installation packages are required to install Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 with
all available components?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of clients that a single Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager can
support?
A. 25,000
B. 50,000
C. 75,000
D. 100,000
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which parameter is unique to each Symantec Endpoint Protection client?
A. CUID
B. GUID
C. SUID
D. RUID
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 client administration?
A. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 has been updated to resemble
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
B. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 centralized administration is now provided exclusively through
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
C. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 now includes fields and options
that require that Network Threat protection is enabled.
D. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 can now be administered through either its own console or the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the relationship of Symantec Network Access Control to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. Symantec Network Access Control is completely integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0
and cannot be installed alone.
B. Symantec Network Access Control is a part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but is not enabled
unless a separate license is purchased.
C. Symantec Network Access Control is not part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but does not
interfere with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
D. Symantec Network Access Control works with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but uses a different
management console and installation process.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.7 Which four events trigger an Auto-Protect scan? (Select four.)
A. create
B. open
C. archive
D. move
E. rename
F. run
Answer: ACDF

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about Symantec Network Access Control? (Select two.)
A. It is integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console and a
single shared client.
B. It is partially integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console
and compatible clients.
C. It is integrated into and included with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but requires an additional
license to enable the network access control features.
D. It is on the roadmap to be integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 in a future maintenance
pack release.
E. It is not integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, although both clients may be installed on
any supported host without any operational issues.
Answer: AC

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NO.9 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029   certification ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.10 What is a benefit of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. A single client provides all functions, which reduces the resource usage footprint.
B. Solaris is a supported platform for the client.
C. The number of required management consoles is reduced from five to three, which simplifies
administration compared to previous versions.
D. Proactive Threat Protection runs in real-time.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.11 Upon which convention are custom Symantec Endpoint Protection Intrusion Prevention signatures
based?
A. Generic Exploit Blocking
B. Cisco IDS
C. SNORT
D. Tripwire
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Which two are characteristics of Proactive Threat Protection? (Select two.)
A. detects unknown threats
B. inspects encrypted network traffic
C. evaluates process behavior
D. blocks attacker's IP address
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029 examen   ST0-029

NO.14 From where does the Migration and Deployment wizadr collect settings?
A. configuration file
B. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
C. Symantec AntiVirus server
D. Active Directory server
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two external databases does Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager support? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
Answer: AC

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NO.16 A company is interested in making sure that their remote VPN users have compliant systems before
joining the corporate network.
Which two Symantec Network Access Control methods are recommended? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Which failover option is available in Symantec Endpoint Protection?
A. One manager can fail over between two databases in a single site.
B. One client can fail over between two managers in a single site.
C. One manager can fail over to another Group Update Provider.
D. One client can fail over between two databases in separate sites.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What are three features of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select three.)
A. Application Performance Management
B. Client Firewall
C. Application and Device Control
D. Endpoint Change Control
E. Intrusion Prevention
Answer: BCE

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NO.19 Which component must be installed prior to installing Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Apache Tomcat Server
B. Microsoft Internet Authentication Server (IAS)
C. Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS)
D. Sun Java Runtime Environment (JRE)
Answer: C

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NO.20 How does Symantec Endpoint Protection use Unmanaged Detector to find unmanaged devices on the
network?
A. It compares MAC addresses to a list of known hosts.
B. It receives logon failures notifications from an LDAP server.
C. It pings clients on port 80 to trigger a response from managed clients.
D. It attempts to make http connections with clients in an address range.
Answer: A

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NO.21 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.22 On which two operating systems can you install Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? (Select
two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Vista Ultimate
B. Microsoft Windows NT Server
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
Answer: CD

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.23 Which two statements describe the interactions between Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 and
Quarantine Server? (Select two.)
A. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager, which
forwards the files to the Quarantine Server.
B. Clients upload log data to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and upload quarantined files to
Quarantine Server.
C. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to the Quarantine Server, which forwards the log data to
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager sends quarantine policies, which define the location of the
Quarantine Server, to managed clients.
E. The Quarantine Server sends its location and quarantine policies and rules to all clients.
Answer: BD

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NO.24 Symantec released a new version of Symantec Endpoint Protection client software. An administrator
needs to find out what versions of Symantec Endpoint Protection are currently in the network.
Which report provides this information?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-029 examen   ST0-029 examen

NO.25 Where can you determine what content updates are available on the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager?
A. Home page
B. Monitors page
C. Clients page
D. Admin page
Answer: D

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NO.26 In which group can you NOT create new subgroups?
A. Global
B. Subgroup
C. Temporary
D. Administrator-created
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.27 What is the maximum number of clients that the embedded database can support?
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 3,000
D. 5,000
Answer: A

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NO.28 How do requirements for installing Symantec Network Access Control relate to installing various
components of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. It does NOT install on any host that is used as either the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager or a
Group Update Provider.
B. It installs in the same client package as all of the Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
C. It does NOT install on any client unless Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed.
D. It installs and is automatically enabled when the Network Threat Protection component of Symantec
Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed on any client.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-029   ST0-029   ST0-029

NO.29 Which two roles can Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager assign to managed clients? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Group Update Provider
C. Unmanaged Detector
D. Database Replicator
Answer: BC

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NO.30 Which Symantec Network Access Control Enforcer can be deployed as either a software plug-in or as
an appliance?
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-025
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two are commonly used to view archived events? (Choose two.)
A. Information Manager Event Viewer
B. Archive Management Console tab
C. Query Wizard
D. Incident Management Console tab
Answer: A, C

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NO.2 Which menu options do you select in the user interface to shut down or reboot the Symantec Security
Information Manager (SSIM) appliance?
A. System --> Shutdown/Restart
B. SSIM Console --> Shutdown/Restart
C. SSIM --> Configure Appliance --> Shutdown/Restart
D. SSIM Console --> Systems tab
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.3 By default, event archives are stored for up to _____ days.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: A

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NO.4 How do you install the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) Console?
A. on the SSIM DVD, go to Tools and install the client
B. go to the SSIM web interface, download the client and click Run
C. from the SSIM appliance, deploy the console to your machine
D. No installation is necessary because SSIM is a browser-based tool.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are two ways in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security
Information Manager solution? (Choose two.)
A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console
B .importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature
C. importing from a .CSV file exported from Active Directory
D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 In Symantec Security Information Manager, collectors send events to _____.
A. Event Disposition
B. Event Archive
C. Event Reporting
D. Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where do you configure LiveUpdate for Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM)?
A. SSIM Start Page --> Configure Appliance --> LiveUpdate tab
B. SSIM Console --> Systems tab --> LiveUpdate tab
C. from a command prompt
D. SSIM Client --> Maintenance tab --> LiveUpdate tab
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.8 Normalization provides a unique identifier for each type of event and _____.
A. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated incident
B. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated event
C. maps events to a device-specific signature
D. maps incidents to a device-specific signature
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which three ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the
device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Choose three.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Availability
D. Priority
E. Integrity
Answer: A, C, E

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.10 What is the correct Symantec Security Information Manager incident identification pipeline?
A. collection --> normalization --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
B. normalization --> collection --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
C. rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
D. attack tracing --> rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
Answer: A

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NO.11 What are on-box collectors?
A. PIX, UNIX Syslog and Sygate
B. Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C. PIX, Snort and Symantec Mail Security
D. Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Symantec Network Security
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is Device-level aggregation?
A. parsing data with data sensors
B. grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C. forwarding event data to the appliance
D. event and log sensoring
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.13 Events that are filtered out remain stored in the ______.
A. Event Logger
B. Incident Repository
C. Event Archive
D. Incident History
Answer: D

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NO.14 When querying archived event data, how can you make a query available to other users of the system?
A. save it in Published Queries
B. save it in Public Templates
C. grant Read Query permission to the domain
D. check the Shared option on the saved query
Answer: A

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NO.15 Security data is continuously gathered from thousands of security sensors worldwide through the
integrated _____.
A. Symantec Security Information Manager
B. DeepSight Global Intelligence Network
C. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
D. Symantec Sygate Solution
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-025   certification ST0-025   certification ST0-025

NO.16 What is the purpose of normalization?
A. to minimize the number of events affecting multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize
the events more quickly
B. to correlate events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
C. to standardize events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events
equally
D. to process the events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events
more quickly
Answer: C

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NO.17 How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?
A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset
B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset
C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset
D. by running the Host Information report on the asset
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-025 examen   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.18 What information does the Correlation Manager use to identify and prioritize incidents?
A. DeepSight
B. event history
C. incident
D. assets
Answer: D

Symantec examen   ST0-025 examen   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.19 Once custom rules are properly defined, the Correlation Engine _____.
A. correlates events against the rule criteria, analyzes conclusions and creates impending incidents
B. analyzes events against the rule criteria, correlates with existing conclusions and creates the
impending incident
C. analyzes events against the rule criteria, creates conclusions and correlates conclusions into incidents
D. applies individual rules to events, analyzes conclusions and correlates events into incidents
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-025   ST0-025

NO.20 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content from Symantec?
A. LiveUpdate
B. LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C. Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D. Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-91W
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows(STS))
Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.2 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.3 A request is made to change volume residences.
Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes? (Select two.)
A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.
B. All volumes must have barcode labels.
C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.
D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.
E. All volumes must have the same media type.
Answer: AE

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs to restore an individual file that was accidentally deleted from a server.
When selecting the backup images for a restore, the folders listed in the left-pane window are greyed out.
When selecting one of these folders, the list of files on the right-pane window is empty even though files
have been backed up from this folder in the past.
What can the administrator do to restore individual files in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface?
A. The administrator needs to login to a system, such as the master server, that has permissions to run
the restore job.
B. The media with the data needs to be placed into the tape library, then the library needs to be
inventoried.
C. The media with the restore data is encrypted and the password needs to be supplied.
D. The restore needs to be changed from a true image backup to a normal backup.
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Control column
status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.
What does this indicate?
A. The drive is down.
B. The drive is up and under operator control.
C. The drive is up and it is empty.
D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown"
In which directory can these commands be found?
A. install_path\NetBackup\bin
B. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmd
C. install_path\NetBackup\bin\support
D. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodies
Answer: A

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NO.7 If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec
NetBackup 7.0 administration console?
A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)
B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)
C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)
D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)
Answer: D

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NO.8 An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list that
includes the System_State directive.
What happens when the backup runs?
A. The backup runs successfully.
B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.
C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for
Windows 2003 clients.
D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is
required for Windows 2003 clients.
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time.
Which option should be used?
A. enable "Compression" in the policy
B. use the FlashBackup policy type
C. enable "Collect True Image Restore" in the policy
D. use the AFS policy type
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which command provides a list of disk pools required for restoring a client?
A. nbdevquery
B. bpimagelist
C. vmquery
D. bpdiskinfo
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup
LiveUpdate?
A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.13 Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available"
for policy storage? (Select two.)
A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage units
B. Media Manager and NDMP storage units
C. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabled
D. storage unit groups
E. storage units with available media
Answer: CE

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NO.14 A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM.
When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs.
What should be done to resolve this error?
A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers
B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit
C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers
D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-91W   ST0-91W   ST0-91W

NO.15 Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation?
(Select two.)
A. divide number of files by retention period
B. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention period
C. multiply number of backups per day by number of clients
D. multiply number of files by average length of file names
E. divide full backups by retention period
Answer: BD

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NO.16 In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)
A. Optimized duplication
B. Duplicate copy to tape
C. Restore to an OpenStorage device
D. Replicated copy
E. Restore to a client
Answer: BE

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NO.17 An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 media
server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.
How should the administrator configure the storage units?
A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit
B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit
C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives
D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.19 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

certification Symantec   ST0-91W   ST0-91W

NO.20 Refer to the exhibit.
In the exhibit, the server_data policy is greyed out and marked with a red "X."
What does this indicate?
A. The policy is using a FlashBackup policy, but the Enterprise client is unlicensed.
B. The policy is using an AdvancedDisk storage unit, but the Flexible Disk option is unlicensed.
C. The policy's "go into effect" date is disabled or set to a date in the future.
D. A backup run from this policy recently failed and the status is in the Activity Monitor.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 250-309
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange)
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

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NO.1 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B,C

Symantec   250-309 examen   250-309 examen

NO.3 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.4 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

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NO.9 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9
for Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,D

Symantec   certification 250-309   250-309   250-309   250-309

NO.12 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.14 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.15 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ASC-066
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 How are console permissions assigned to resources on the Notification Server?
A.Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B.Organizational Views and Groups
C.Access Control Lists (ACL)
D.Filters and Targets
Answer: B

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NO.2 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A.likelihood of occurrence
B.order of occurrence
C.level of inconvenience to the customer
D.impact to the project
E.visibility to senior management
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Select two.)
A.information related to the configuration of managed computers
B.an inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C.physical software packages to install applications on managed computers
D.Symantec Management Platform core web application settings
E.settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.4 What is the Notification Server the primary component of?
A.SIM
B.SAM
C.Deployment Server
D.Symantec Management Platform
Answer: D

Symantec   ASC-066   ASC-066   ASC-066   ASC-066

NO.5 Which two items should be associated with a site when configuring sites on the Notification Server?
(Select two.)
A.site services
B.clients
C.subnets
D.Notification Server
E.multi-cast addresses
Answer: AC

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NO.6 What is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the Client Management Suite service?
A.Determine solution requirements and expectations of all stakeholders within the project.
B.Determine the solution configuration of all components.
C.Define the solution architecture and provide hardware and software requirements.
D.Define the solution workflow in order to design the solution configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Before going to a customer site for solution deployment, what should a consultant check for?
A.places to stay and eat
B.product updates
C.competitive products
D.customer's competition
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which critical engagement meeting ensures all stakeholders have the same expectations of the goals
and deliverables of the project?
A.Customer Needs Assessment Meeting
B.Customer Engagement Planning Meeting
C.Business Requirements Meeting
D.Project Kick-off Meeting
Answer: B

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NO.9 If a consultant fails to identify who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support, who will
end up being responsible?
A.the consultant
B.Symantec Support
C.the customer
D.the project manager
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two statements are correct when determining Notification Server hardware requirements?
(Select two.)
A.Hardware specification is directly proportional to the number of managed endpoints.
B.Optimizing individual solutions can decrease the supported managed endpoints.
C.Number of utilized solutions affects the maximum supported endpoint count.
D.MS SQL installed on the Notification Server increases the maximum supported endpoint count.
E.Placing site servers in the environment decreases the supported managed endpoints on a Notification
Server.
Answer: AC

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NO.11 Which two duties are performed by Site Servers? (Select two.)
A.move policies and tasks closer to their points of distribution
B.move network-intensive services closer to their points of distribution
C.move software and clients to the distribution pool
D.move memory intensive services to a different site
E.move processor-intensive services off of the Notification Server
Answer: BE

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NO.12 What is a Site Server?
A.any computer with a site service installed on it
B.any computer with software packages stored on it
C.any Notification Server assigned to be in a site
D.any server that is assigned to be in a site
Answer: A

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NO.13 How is resource scoping implemented?
A.by including the appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B.by granting the permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
C.by replacing the filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections
D.by creating multiple organizational views and groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two factors can influence overall Client Management Suite design? (Select two.)
A.network bandwidth and topology
B.managed node count
C.Notification Server service pack version
D.change control process
E.database maintenance schedules
Answer: AB

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NO.15 What is an organizational view?
A.a hierarchical grouping of resources
B.a hierarchical list of user permissions
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a set of reports organized by computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is an organizational group?
A.an object that contains resources and other organizational groups
B.a list of users with a given set of permissions and privileges
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a report showing a selected organization of computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which SMP component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A.Package Server
B.Task Server
C.Site Server
D.PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the primary purpose of Site Services?
A.decentralized administration
B.centralized administration
C.minimize WAN utilization
D.increase agent to Notification Server communications
Answer: C

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NO.19 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A.ongoing tech support
B.additional licenses
C.new hardware and software
D.six month health check
Answer: D

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NO.20 What are two benefits of using Symantec's Service Delivery Methodology? (Select two.)
A.reduces the risk of project scope creep
B.minimizes project risk
C.provides proven delivery methodology
D.uses industry best practices
E.increases customer satisfaction
Answer: CD

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Code d'Examen: ST0-116
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 176 Q&As

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NO.1 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

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NO.3 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-116   ST0-116 examen   ST0-116

NO.6 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A, E

Symantec   certification ST0-116   ST0-116   ST0-116 examen

NO.7 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to
communicate back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored.?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

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NO.8 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

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NO.9 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

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NO.10 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

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NO.11 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B, D

Symantec   ST0-116   ST0-116 examen

NO.13 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification ST0-116   ST0-116

NO.15 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB . Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B, D

Symantec examen   ST0-116   certification ST0-116

NO.17 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C, E

Symantec examen   ST0-116   ST0-116   ST0-116

NO.18 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-116   ST0-116

NO.19 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

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