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Code d'Examen: HP0-P17
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Security Administration)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a limitation of HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) as it applies to Denial of Service (DoS)
attacks?
A. Processes must be grouped before they can be managed.
B. PRM does not perform memory capping; only entitlement and selection.
C. PRM only applies to time-shared processes; real-time processes are not affected.
D. PRM requires a separate configuration file for time-shared and real-time processes.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Where are Trusted Computing Services (TCS) protected EVFS keys stored?
A. HP-UX kernel
B. EVFS volume
C. system stable storage
D. HP-UX root file system
E. Trusted Platform Module
Answer: D

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NO.3 Encrypted Volume and File System (EVFS) uses which type of key to encrypt data?
A. digital certificate
B. RSA-1024 bit public key
C. RSA-2048 bit private key
D. AES-128 bit symmetric key
E. AES-256 bit asymmetric key
Answer: D

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NO.4 After running kctune executable_stack=2, what happens if MyProg executes code from the stack?
A. MyProg continues running without incident.
B. MyProg is killed before a single instruction can be executed.
C. MyProg continues, but logs a warning to /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log.
D. MyProg continues, but a warning message is logged to the kernel message buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the effect of the coreadm -e global-setid command?
A. edits the core dump file
B. reads and interprets the core dump file
C. enables the kernel for system crash dumps
D. enables setuid/setgid core dumps system wide
E. causes all running setuid programs to generate a core file
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true regarding an HP-UX VxFS filesystem using ACLs?
A. Default ACLs can only be placed on a file.
B. Default ACLs have the same owner as the owner of the file the ACL controls.
C. A directory's ACL can have default entries that are applied to files subsequently.
D. An ACL has an owner that can be different from the owner of the file the ACL controls.
Answer: C

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In order to restrict the access to the /etc/group file through FTP, which statement should be included in
the /etc/ftpd/ftpaccess file?
Identify the features of the TCP Wrappers product. (Select three.)
A. noaccess /etc/group
B. noretrieve /etc/group
C. accessdeny /etc/group
D.
suppressaccess
/etc/group
Answer: B

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A. enhances cryptographic authentication
B. provides protection against IP address spoofing
C. provides protection against hostname spoofing
D. provides data encryption on TCP "wrapped" connections
E. provides enhanced protection for RPC daemons using TCP/IP connections
F. provides enhanced security for daemons managed by inetd using TCP/IP connections
G. may be configured to provide enhanced security for any daemon using TCP/IP connections
Answer: BCF

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NO.7 Some open source software tools use the /usr/local/sbin and /usr/local/src directories. What should
you do with the /usr/local directory to maintain a secure system?
A. Verify that /usr/local and its subdirectories are not world writable.
B. Remove /usr/local/bin and /usr/local/sbin from the user's PATH variable.
C. Set permissions on /usr/local and its subdirectories to 047 so all users have access.
D. Use the swlist -l file | grep /usr/local command to see all files installed in those directories.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which benefits does chroot provide to an application from a security perspective? (Select three.)
A. forces an application to start in a specified directory
B. allows the users to do a cd above the specified directory
C. prevents an application from starting in a specified directory
D. prevents the users from doing a cd above the specified directory
E. allows the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
F. prevents the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
Answer: ADE

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NO.9 Where can an HP-UX 11i v3 EVFS-encrypted backup tape from an HP Integrity rx7640 Server be
restored and decrypted?
A. only on the HP-UX system where the tape was created
B. on any HP-UX system where the symmetric encryption key resides
C. on any HP-UX system where the backup owner's public key resides
D. on any HP-UX system where the backup owner's public/private key pair resides
Answer: D

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NO.10 Identify where Encrypted Volume and File System (EVFS) protects data.
A. in transit
B. in the kernel
C. over the network
D. on the storage device
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which chatr syntax enables buffer overflow protection on a per-binary basis?
A. chatr +b enable <binary>
B. chatr -es enable <binary>
C. chatr +es enable <binary>
D. chatr +bo enable <binary>
E. chatr +es default <binary>
Answer: C

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NO.12 How can you grant NFS filesystem access to specific users as opposed to all users? (Select two.)
A. Specify the desired users to the /etc/dfs/sharetab entry for the mount point using the format
"-access=user1:user2:user3".
B. Add the desired users to an ACL and set the permissions of the shared filesystem such that only
members of the ACL can access the data.
C. Add the desired users to a group and set the permissions of the shared filesystem such that only
members of the group can access the data.
D. Add the desired users to a netgroup and specify the netgroup in the /etc/dfs/sharetab entry for the
mount point using the format "-access=netgroup".
Answer: BC

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NO.13 After running /usr/sbin/pwck, the following output is displayed:
smbnull:*:101:101::/home/smbnull:/sbin/sh Login directory not found
What should you do to tighten the security?
A. Nothing - it is a valid system user ID.
B. Nothing - it is used by CIFS/Samba to represent "nobody" with a positive UID.
C. Edit the /etc/passwd entry to specify a dummy login directory and a false login shell.
D. Delete it from /etc/passwd. Opensource Samba installs it by default and it is not required on HP-UX.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which commands configure an application to operate within a secure compartment? (Select two.)
A. privrun
B. privedit
C. setrules
D. cmdprivadm
E. setfilexsec
Answer: DE

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NO.15 Which product encrypts data on zx2-based Integrity servers?
A. HP-UX VxFS filesystem
B. HP-UX Encryption Module
C. HP-UX Trusted Computing Services
D. HP-UX Integrity Trusted Platform Module
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
You used the dmesg command to display the warning shown in the exhibit. Which kernel parameter
setting makes this
warning message appear?
A. kill_overflow is set to 1
B. exc_stack_code is set to 0
C. buffer_overflow is set to 1
D. executable_stack is set to 0
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which tool is recommended for providing file integrity information?
A. hash
B. cksum
C. crypt
D. md5sum
Answer: D

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NO.18 Identify ways HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) can protect a system against poorly designed
applications. (Select three.)
A. PRM can limit the amount of memory applications may consume.
B. PRM can limit the amount of swap space applications may consume.
C. PRM can limit the amount of disk bandwidth applications may consume.
D. PRM can limit the amount of CPU resources applications may consume.
E. PRM can limit the amount of network bandwidth applications may consume.
F. PRM can limit the number of inbound network connections to configured applications.
Answer: ACD

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y11
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Security 7.31)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statements describing the 802.1X user authentication process are correct? (Select two.)
A. The supplicant and authentication server must support the same EAP method for the authentication
process to proceed.
B. A switch passes EAP messages between the supplicant and authentication switch without modification
or translation.
C. After a RADIUS server confirms a user is authenticated, the switch sends an EAP-Success message
and sets the port state to authorized.
D. Different RADIUS servers must be configured on the switch if authentication of both switch
management users and 802.1X supplicants will be performed.
E. If a supplicant receives an EAP-Request message specifying a particular EAP method to be supported,
the authentication session is closed if the supplicant does not support that EAP method.
Answer:AC

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NO.2 Which statements describing the ProCurve switch debug facility are correct? (Select two.)
A. The instrumentation monitor must be enabled first.
B. Specific debug message categories can be selectively enabled.
C. The debug destinations can be set to a session window and a Syslog server concurrently.
D. Debug messages have the same format as standard Event Log messages including the event type
and timestamp.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 Which statements describing MAC authentication on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select two.)
A. It can be configured on the same port with Web authentication and 802.1X authentication.
B. The device's MAC address is sent to the RADIUS server as the user name and password.
C. The switch's built-in DHCP server initially assigns an IP address in the 192.168.0.0 private subnet.
D. The switch automatically initiates user authentication of a device when the device communicates on a
MAC authenticator port.
E. Configuration involves defining ports as MAC authenticators, the RADIUS authentication protocol to
use, and then activating the ports for MAC authentication operation.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which statements describing Web authentication support on ProCurve switches are correct? (Select
two.)
A. An SSL-based login is required.
B. It can be configured on ports that also have MAC authentication assigned.
C. A successfully authenticated user can be redirected to a configurable URL.
D. The switch's built-in DHCP, ARP, and DNS services assist with Web authentication while a port is in
the authenticating state.
E. When a client connects to a Web authenticator port and a Web browser is opened, the Web browser is
automatically redirected to the switch's Web-Auth home page.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 You have ProCurve Identity Driven Manager currently deployed in your network and have recently
modified an Access Profile. Which task should you perform next?
A. Restart the IDM Agent.
B. Deploy the configuration.
C. Run the Secure Access Wizard.
D. Update the Access Policy Groups.
E. Start Active Directory synchronization.
F. Rediscover switches affected by the changes.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer calls you and describes a switch management access problem involving SSH. The
customer indicates that he is denied access after supplying the login credentials. The customer is using a
RADIUS server for centralized authentication, and has used the ping command to verify that the SSH
client, switch, and RADIUS server are all reachable. What is a potential cause of this problem?
A. A self-signed digital certificate has not been installed on the switch.
B. SSH has not been configured for the login access level on the switch.
C. A remote-access policy on the RADIUS server has not been configured to support the CHAP protocol.
D. The digital certificate of the public Certificate Authority used by the switch has not been installed in the
SSH client.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You want to use 802.1X port-access authentication to assign Microsoft Active Directory users to a
particular VLAN
based on user credentials. Which condition must exist?
A. The VLAN ID must exist on the switch.
B. The VLAN ID must be defined in a GVRP configuration.
C. The port through which the user is authenticating must be defined as a member of the VLAN.
D. The user must be a member of an Active Directory Group that has an associated RADIUS remote-
access policy.
Answer:A

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NO.8 Authentication of switch management or general network users can involve multiple network
components. Which statement describing these network components is correct?
A. A user directory server operates as the policy enforcement point.
B. The authentication server is also known as the policy decision point.
C. A ProCurve switch functions as a policy repository for switch management access using a remote user
account.
D. A RADIUS access-accept message is used by a client to acknowledge authentication settings
assigned by the server.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which EAP method is considered the least secure solution for implementing 802.1X user
authentication on a wireless LAN?
A. SIM
B. MD5
C. TTLS
D. FAST
E. LEAP
F. PEAP
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two EAP methods support tunneling of a weaker authentication method such as MS-CHAPv2?
A. TLS and SIM
B. PAP and SPAP
C. LEAP and FAST
D. PEAP and TTLS
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is an operational difference between the TLS and MD5 EAP methods?
A. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication; MD5 uses certificates for
authentication.
B. TLS uses a challenge/handshake mechanism for authentication and encryption; MD5 uses certificates
for authentication and encryption.
C. TLS uses digital certificates for mutual authentication; MD5 uses a challenge/handshake mechanism
to authenticate the client to the server.
D. TLS uses a name and password along with digital certificates to produce a session key; MD5 uses a
name and password to produce a session key.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You have just installed two ProCurve 5406zl switches, one on the second floor and one on the third
floor of your office. You are using 802.1X for port-access authentication. All users have an 802.1X
supplicant installed on their computers and you have configured a RADIUS server with a remote access
policy for each floor. Shortly after connecting the computers, users on the second floor report that they
cannot access any network resources. You can ping the RADIUS server from both switches, but when
you check the RADIUS log, you see authentication requests coming only from the third floor switch. Why
are the second floor users unable to connect to the network?
A. The IP address of the RADIUS server has not been configured on the second floor switch.
B. The second floor computers are using the wrong EAP type for authentication with the RADIUS server.
C. The shared secret configured on the second floor switch does not match the shared secret configured
on the RADIUS server.
D. No default gateway has been configured on the second floor switch, therefore no authentication
requests can reach the RADIUS server.
Answer:A

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NO.13 What is a capability of the Secure Access Wizard supported by ProCurve Identity Driven Manager?
A. It configures 802.1X authenticator ports and RADIUS server settings on a switch.
B. It verifies the integrity of the ProCurve Identity Driven Manager database using Active Directory.
C. It conceals all security-related credentials stored in the switch configuration before backing up the file.
D. It checks a switch configuration file's 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication settings for consistency and
reports any
errors.
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which protocols are supported by a ProCurve switch for communication with a RADIUS server that is
used to authenticate 802.1X supplicants? (Select two.)
A. EAP-RADIUS
B. MD5-RADIUS
C. CHAP-RADIUS
D. PAP-SPAP-RADIUS
E. MS-CHAPv2-RADIUS
Answer:AC

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NO.15 A university shares a core routing switch between two departments. Each department has a separate
ProCurve edge switch deployed and neither department wants the other to have management access to
their respective switch. Which security measures can prevent management access by the respective
departments? (Select three.)
A. Enable the Privilege Mode option.
B. Configure Authorized IP Managers.
C. Define Secure Management VLANs.
D. Implement Command Authorization.
E. Use RADIUS authentication with separate policies.
Answer: BCE

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NO.16 Which EAP methods support authentication of an 802.1X supplicant based on a user's name and
password? (Select two.)
A. SIM
B. TLS
C. TTLS
D. SPAP
E. PEAP
F. CHAP
Answer: CE

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NO.17 Which statement describing dynamic VLAN assignment for 802.1X authenticator ports on ProCurve
switches is correct?
A. If a GVRP-learned VLAN is used, the RADIUS server must specify that attribute.
B. The VLAN used may be statically defined on the switch or learned through GVRP.
C. If a client fails authentication, the port is reassigned to the Secure Management VLAN.
D. If a client is authenticated, but no VLAN attribute is returned by a RADIUS server, the switch blocks the
port.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which statement describing Web authentication support on the ProCurve Switch 5400zl series is
correct?
A. User credentials or a digital certificate can authenticate the client.
B. It is mutually exclusive of other authentication methods on the same port.
C. After successful user authentication, a port is assigned to a VLAN based on an order of priority.
D. If a port is configured to support multiple users, different static untagged VLANs can be assigned
concurrently.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
The RADIUS server and switch are correctly configured. The switch has the VLAN assignments and
port-access
commands configured, as shown in the diagram.
What happens to port 10 after the user connects to the network?
A. remains in an unauthorized state
B. becomes a member of VLAN 20
C. becomes a member of VLAN 25
D. becomes a member of VLAN 200
Answer: D

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NO.20 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which action describes a
perimeter security measure?
A. limiting switch access to SSH
B. deploying 802.1X authentication
C. installing an Intrusion Prevention System
D. using a secure operating system for network applications
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-144
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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NO.6 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.8 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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NO.12 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.15 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.17 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.18 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.19 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-790
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProCurve Routing Switch Essentials v5.21)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 The global context in the running configuration of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m includes
the spanning-tree single 802-1w command. However, each of the VLAN contexts includes the
spanning-tree command. How will the switch implement Spanning Tree?
A.The switch will implement the Spanning Tree version included in BPDUs it receives from neighbors.
B.The switch will implement a single instance of IEEE 802.1w.
C.The switch will not join a Spanning Tree because of the mismatch between configured versions.
D.The switch will implement per-VLAN IEEE 802.1D and ignore the global configuration command.
Correct:B

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NO.2 A customer network includes a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and several 5300xl switches. If
the 5300s are configured at default, which protocol must be enabled on the 9300m in order for all
the switches to participate in a single Spanning Tree domain?
A.IEEE 802.1X
B.IEEE 802.1Q
C.IEEE 802.1s
D.IEEE 802.1w
Correct:D

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NO.3 What is the size of the address range specified in the following ACL entry? access-list 1 permit
192.168.192.0 0.0.1.255?
A.256 addresses
B.512 addresses
C.1,024 addresses
D.65,536 addresses
E.16,777,216 addresses
Correct:B

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NO.4 You must set 802.1w Bridge Priorities for a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and a Switch 5300xl.
What is a difference between the Bridge Priority settings on these two models?
A.On the 9300m, the Bridge Priority is set at actual value. The 5300xl uses a multiplier.
B.The 9300m supports 4096 Bridge Priority values. The 5300xl supports 16.
C.On the 5300xl, 0 is the lowest Bridge Priority. On the 9300m, 0 is the normal priority.
D.The 5300xl supports a separate Bridge Priority for each STP instance. On the 9300m, a single priority
is applied to all STP instances.
Correct:A

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NO.5 The administrator of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m enters spanning-tree in the global
configuration context. Which Spanning Tree topology is enabled on the switch?
A.Single-instance Spanning Tree
B.Rapid Spanning Tree
C.Extended Spanning Tree
D.Per-VLAN Spanning Tree
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J18
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 206 Q&As

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NO.1 You set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an Enterprise Virtual Array to
double. What is the effect?
A.Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B.Four disks are reserved as spare space.
C.A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
D.A four-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
ANSWER: D

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NO.2 Which statement is correct about the allocation policy of snapshots?
A.If one snapshot in a disk group is created using allocation on demand, all snapshots in the same disk group
must use allocation on demand.
B.If one snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using allocation on demand, other snapshots in the same
virtual disk family can be fully allocated snapshots.
C.If the first snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using the fully allocated method, all subsequent
snapshots in the same disk group must be fully allocated.
D.If the first snapshot in a virtual disk family is created using allocation on demand, all subsequent snapshots in
the same virtual disk family will use allocation on demand.
ANSWER: D

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NO.3 Which statements are correct about using thin provisioning in an EVA environment? (Select two.)
A.Capacity utilization is increased.
B.Extension of a LUN cannot be automated.
C.Host agents must be installed on servers.
D.LUN shrink is not always supported for EVA.
E.It can be performed within Command View EVA.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.4 You have a disk group set to double protection level that contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens
when you have the simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same
Redundant Storage Set (RSS)?
A.Vraid1 data migrates to Vraid5.
B.The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
C.The Vraid1 data from the failed disks are reconstructed.
D.The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 You are preparing to upgrade an EVA5000 2C6D solution to an EVA6100 2C8D solution in a Windows
environment. What must be considered before the installation?
A.New array controllers are 1U higher than old controllers.
B.EVA6100 device switches have a greater installation height.
C.An M5214B enclosure cannot be used with an EVA6100 solution.
D.Different multipath software must be purchased to assure connectivity.
ANSWER: A

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NO.6 What are components of the EVA 4100/6100/8100 Foundation Service?
A.Pre-Sales Consulting, 2-year hardware support, 2-year phone-in support and update
B.Pre-Sales Consulting, 3-year hardware support, 3-year phone-in support and update
C.Installation and Startup, 2-year hardware support, 2-year phone-in support and update
D.Installation and Startup, 3-year hardware support, 3-year phone-in support and update
ANSWER: C

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NO.7 Which statement best describes virtual disk leveling?
A.subgrouping drives within a disk group to allow failure separation
B.distributing all user data proportionally across all spindles within a virtual disk
C.distributing all user data proportionally across all spindles within a disk group
D.allocating space per disk group to recover from physical disk failure in that group
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB Vraid1
Vdisks?
A.across 10 disks in the group
B.across 14 disks in the group
C.across 15 disks in the group
D.across 16 disks in the group
E.The group does not need to relevel.
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 You set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an Enterprise Virtual Array to
single. What is the effect?
A.One disk is reserved as spare space.
B.Two disks are reserved as spare space.
C.A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
D.A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
ANSWER: C

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NO.10 Which EVA base models include loop switches? (Select two.)
A.EVA4100 2C4D
B.EVA6100 2C4D
C.EVA6100 2C6D
D.EVA8100 2C2D
E.EVA8100 2C8D
ANSWER: CE

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NO.11 Which statements about mirrorclones are correct? (Select two.)
A.A detached mirrorclone cannot be reattached to its source.
B.If the mirrorclone is in a normalized state, you can only detach it.
C.HP recommends keeping mirrorclones in the same disk group as the source.
D.The redundancy (Vraid) level of a mirrorclone must be the same or higher than the source.
E.A mirrorclone delta restore may be made when the mirrorclone source is also the source for a DR group.
ANSWER: AE

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NO.12 A disk group member failure occurs with a Vraid5 virtual disk. What happens to the data if the disk group
has assigned spare space and there is also enough available free space?
A.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into a snapclone.
B.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the free space.
C.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the default disk group.
D.Data from the failed disk are reconstructed into the allocated spare space.
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 Which replication method can cause an overcommit situation? (Select two.)
A.clone
B.Vsnap
C.snapclone
D.fully allocated snapshot
E.demand-allocated snapshot
ANSWER: BE

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NO.14 What are features of FATA disk technology? (Select two.)
A.greater than 80% duty cycle
B.extensive command queueing
C.designed for 24 by 7 availability
D.no native Fibre Channel interface on FATA disks
E.same capacity at similar cost as Fibre Channel-SCSI disks
ANSWER: BC

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NO.15 What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the Enterprise Virtual Array context?
A.smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B.smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C.disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D.data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 You want to add more drives into the cabinet of an EVA6100 with 8 shelves and 56 drives. What is the HP
best practice regarding this?
A.Always add drives into the array in multiples of eight.
B.Set the add disk option to automatic and add the drives.
C.Add all the drives at the same time to minimize disruption to the I/O path.
D.Add the drives into one shelf at a time because the data is stored on all disks in the array and the distribution
of the disks is not important.
ANSWER: A

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NO.17 What is presented to the specified host if you complete the virtual disk presentation sequence in Command
View EVA without specifying a LUN?
A.LUN 0
B.the next available LUN number
C.the highest available LUN number
D.most recently presented LUN number
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 What happens to the Vraid5 when two disk drives residing in different Redundant Storage Sets go into the
Failed State simultaneously? (Select two.)
A.The Vraid5 fails and there is data loss.
B.Data on the remaining disk drives are releveled.
C.The data from the failed disk drives are reconstructed.
D.The two failed drives go into the migrating state to preserve the data.
E.The Vraid5 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and the data are preserved.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.19 A Vraid5 virtual disk has been created in a 12-member disk group. What is the result of the loss of one disk?
A.addition of a new Redundant Storage Set
B.reordering of disks in each Redundant Storage Set
C.reduction in the number of Redundant Storage Sets
D.no change in the number of Redundant Storage Sets
ANSWER: C

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NO.20 You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen if a
single disk fails?
A.The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B.The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
C.The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
D.The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
ANSWER: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S15
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 E-commerce sites are an example of which implementation?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:B

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NO.2 The following questions are asked during which part of the planning cycle? What is the
expected availability of the new solution? What is the projected role of the new server? What kind
of system management tools are required?
A.site survey
B.scope of work
C.needs analysis
D.implementation timeline
Correct:C

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NO.3 What action does HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) take when a blade server is identified
through another system in the same rack or enclosure?
A.The system is catalogued to be polled during the next discovery task
B.Associations are made between the blade server operating system to the next blade server operating
system using the Interconnect ID.
C.Associations are made between the iLO and the enclosure in which the system resides.
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) requests all relevant information about the blade server to the
HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager.
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which tool gives you an intuitive and secure interface to review in-depth information on
hardware configuration, performance metrics and system thresholds and is part of the ProLiant
Support Pack?
A.HP Control Tower
B.HP System Management Homepage
C.HP Performance Management agents
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which management protocol is used by the Onboard Administrator for BladeSystem c-Class to
send event notifications for thresholds and faults to HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.eXtended Management Layer (XML) protocol
B.Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
C.Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:D

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NO.6 What is downloaded from an HP website when updating the patch database used by
Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM)?
A.updated VPM software, if available
B.latest patches from different vendors
C.latest vulnerability scan definition files
D.newer version of the Radia patch agent, if available
Correct:C

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NO.7 What do you need to access the Onboard Administrator for a BladeSystem c-Class enclosure
remotely? (Select two.)
A.a standard USB cable
B.an RS-232 serial cable
C.a compatible web browser
D.a terminal emulation program
E.the Onboard Administrator IP address
Correct:C E

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NO.8 What benefit is provided from a fault-tolerant system?
A.99.99% availability
B.maximum availability regardless of the circumstances
C.clustering with failover processes and application monitoring
D.component level redundancy, with a limited percentage of downtime
Correct:B

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NO.9 What is one of the primary responsibilities of Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) in the server blade
p-class architecture?
A.Control the distribution of virtual IP-addresses and link them to the physical MAC addresses.
B.Control and regulate access to the power management module when using the RS-232 connection
method.
C.Monitor and control the communication on the network bus used by the power and enclosure
management module.
D.Assist in managing power resources by acting as an intelligent interface to the server blade
infrastructure and its power management module.
Correct:D

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NO.10 When configuring the authorizations for the System Management Homepage (SMH) on a Linux
server, what should the system manager do to allow access for the root user?
A.Create a password for root in SMH.
B.Add root to the administrators group in SMH.
C.Import the password file from Linux into SMH.
D.Enter the root username and password to log into SMH.
Correct:D

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NO.11 What is the recommended method of configuring the access security control between HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) and the System Management Homepage (SMH)?
A.configure trust by name in HP SIM
B.configure trust by certificate in the SMH
C.import the SSH private key generated by HP SIM into SMH
D.synchronize the password files between SMH and HP SIM
Correct:B

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NO.12 What can be imported into the System Management Homepage to increase security?
A.local server certificate
B.encrypted password file
C.Secure Shell (SSH) public key
D.128bit RC4 encryption license
Correct:A

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NO.13 When looking into HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM), an administrator detects an issue
with a c-Class server blade. However, in the Onboard Administrator, everything looks fine. What
could be the reason?
A.The Onboard Administrator is running in a different VLAN than the HP SIM server.
B.The c-Class server blades are running an older version of the HP management agents.
C.The Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the blades.
D.The management link between the c-Class server blades and the Onboard Administrator is not
configured.
Correct:C

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NO.14 What is used by Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) to improve security? (Select two.)
A.XML scripting
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.Virtual password store
D.Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
E.Secure Task Execution (STE)
Correct:B D

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NO.15 Which HP SAN design is recommended for anyone just starting with SAN technology?
A.HP standard design
B.variation of an HP standard design
C.flexible design using HP standard design
D.custom design using HP StorageWorks SAN design rules
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which layer-two protocol provides neighbor device discovery and runs on all networking
devices such as routers, bridges and switches?
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Transmit Control Protocol (TCP)
C.Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:A

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NO.17 What integrates with the System Management Homepage to enable network administrators to
maintain detailed server inventory and track historical configuration changes?
A.Version Control Agents (VCA)
B.HP Insight Diagnostics Online
C.Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
D.Open Services Event Manager (OSEM)
Correct:B

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NO.18 Which feature in Intelligent Networking Pack (INP) allows the creation of groups inside a single
team, where each group is assigned one or more teamed ports?
A.fast path failover
B.router path failover
C.dual channel teaming
D.dual channel load balancing
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which application requires 100% uptime, where unavailability can have catastrophic business
impact?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:A

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NO.20 What is used to secure access to the System Management Homepage? (Select two.)
A.IP restriction
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.web-based secured login
D.SNMP community names
E.multiple login authentications
Correct:A C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J29
Nom d'Examen: HP (Replication Solutions for the HP StorageWorks EVA)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 When building a six-fabric configuration using FC-to-IP, how many dedicated gateways are
required?
A.2
B.8
C.4
D.12
Correct:C

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NO.2 A Windows server is running Command View and HP Replication Solutions Manager (RSM).
While executing an RSM replication script, it is rebooted by the addition of new security patches
from Microsoft. What happens to that script?
A.System shutdown is delayed until the replication script is finished.
B.Any snapshots and snapclones currently in progress are suspended.
C.Running replication tasks are queued and continued after the reboot.
D.The replication script is aborted and will require a manual restart.
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which capabilities does HP StorageWorks EVA Dynamic Capacity Management Software
provide?
A.the ability to provision storage on the fly
B.the ability to monitor EVA Vdisks and DR groups
C.the ability to monitor Vdisk performance and relocate as required
D.the ability to grow and shrink volumes as required
Correct:D

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NO.4 When implementing VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in a Continuous Access EVA
environment, what is required in addition to the SRM software?
A.Replication Solution Manager host agent
B.HP EVAx000 VDS1.0 and VDS1.1/VSS Hardware Providers
C.HP StorageWorks EVA Virtualization Adapter
D.HP EVA VDS/VSS 2.0 Hardware Providers
Correct:C

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NO.5 A.Which functionality allows them to maintain a copy of the original Vdisk and, while in a normalized state,
is
B.automatically updated whenever the source Vdisk is updated?
C.synchronized mirrorclones
D.synchronous Continuous Access
E.synchronized containers
F.enhanced asynchronous Continuous Access
Correct:A

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NO.6 A.What would you use to obtain a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero in failsafe mode and a low
B.performance impact?
C.a latency less than or equal to 10ms in enhanced asynchronous replication mode
D.a latency less than or equal to 120ms in asynchronous replication mode
E.a 4Gb/s link with low latency in synchronous replication mode
F.an 8Gb/s link with medium to high latency in synchronous replication mode
Correct:C

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NO.7 What is a demand allocated snapshot also known as?
A.replica snapshot
B.dynamic snapshot
C.instantaneous snapshot
D.virtual snapshot
Correct:D

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NO.8 Implementing N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV) in a SAN provides certain advantages. Which
statements are true about implementing such a solution? (Select two.)
A.NPIV is required if there is 2:1 or greater server-to-uplink ratio on a fully populated enclosure with 16
server blades.
B.You can only take advantage of NPIV when configured with HP Brocade SAN switches in C-Class
blade enclosures.
C.In large fabrics, NPIV helps to avoid exceeding domain count limits with multiple blade enclosures.
D.NPIV makes a single Fibre Channel port appear as multiple virtual ports, each having its own N_Port ID
and virtual WWN.
E.NPIV must be managed separately from the switches. However, it uses the common Fabric OS so that
it can be consistently managed with the
F.
Correct:C D

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NO.9 When designing EVA8100 and EVA4400 in a five-fabric 8-port to 4-port configuration, which ratio
of host ports to replication ports is supported?
A.1:4
B.2:4
C.3:1
D.4:2
Correct:C

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NO.10 What is meant by the expression replication relationships = 3:1 in the HP StorageWorks
Enterprise Virtual Array Compatibility Reference Guide? (Select two.)
A.Using synchronous replication, a maximum of three hops between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
B.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have replicated volumes on three other Enterprise Virtual Arrays.
C.Three Enterprise Virtual Arrays may have replicated volumes on a fourth Enterprise Virtual Array.
D.Using asynchronous replication, a maximum of three links between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
E.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have a single volume replicated to three other Enterprise Virtual
Arrays.
Correct:B C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y18
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism do both the ProCurve AP 420 and the ProCurve AP 530
support?
A. Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM)
B. SpectraLink Voice Priority (SVP)
C. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
D. Wi-Fi Multimedia Extensions (WME)
Answer: B

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NO.2 The ProCurve AP 420 radio has one Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID), and each of the two AP 530
radios has 16 BSSIDs.What is the implication of this difference?
A. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 16.
B. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 32.
C. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 16.
D. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 32.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Wireless networks present certain challenges.Which wireless network challenge does ProCurve
Mobility Infrastructure Solutions help you address?
A. Users are less productive when using a wireless connection.
B. 802. 11 standards do not provide any guidelines for Layer 2 roaming.
C. 802. 11 standards do not provide any encryption, so you must create VPN tunnels to each end station.
D. Multiple users connect to the network through the same AP, but access must be authorized for each
user.
Answer: D

HP   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18

NO.4 What is the default management username and password on the ProCurve AP 530?
A. The username is admin, and the password is admin.
B. The username is admin, and the password is procurve.
C. The username is manager, and the password is procurve.
D. The username is admin, and there is no default password.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What purpose does the second software image on the ProCurve AP 420 serve?
A. It allows you to choose two different images to load onto the AP.
B. It allows you to keep the last software image that was loaded onto the AP.
C. It provides a failsafe image in the event the primary image becomes corrupted.
D. It provides an alternate software version in the event the primary does not support your configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When can a station no longer communicate with an AP?
A. when the received signal falls below 0 dBm
B. when the received signal falls below the background noise
C. when the received signal falls below the station's receiver sensitivity
D. when the received signal falls below the fade margin for the wireless cell
Answer: C

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NO.7 How many configuration files can be stored on the ProCurve AP 420?
A. 2: the startup-config and the factory default config
B. 3: the startup-config, the factory default config, and one custom config
C. 3: the factory default config, the startup-config, and the backup startup-config
D. 4: the factory default config, the startup-config, the backup startup-config, and one custom config
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on the ProCurve AP 530 prevent?
A. loops over connections to stations in the wireless network
B. loops over the APs Ethernet and wireless bridge connections
C. loops over connections between stations in the wireless and the wired network
D. loops over connections between only wireless stations associated with multiple APs
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are configuring a ProCurve AP 530.You configure two WLANs.What is one reason to enable the
first WLAN only on radio 1 and the second WLAN only on radio 2?
A. to overcome environmental obstacles
B. to double the capacity of each WLAN by using two radios
C. to separate different types of wireless traffic into different collision domains
D. to allow users to choose their radio but still connect to the same Basic Service Set (BSS)
Answer: C

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NO.10 You want ProCurve Radio Port (RP) 1's radio to function as a neighbor for RP 2's radio.RP 1 will
monitor RP 2 and take action if RP 2 becomes unavailable.You configure RP 1's radio to take which
action if RP 2 becomes unavailable? (Select two. )
A. Open its data rates.
B. Change the radio's channel.
C. Increase the radio's transmit power.
D. Order stations associated with RP 2 to roam.
E. Change the radio mode from 802. 11a to 802. 11b/g.
Answer: AC

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NO.11 You need to provide a wireless network for a small area that will require two access points.For this
wireless network, you want to support both 802. 11b/g and 802. 11a radios throughout the entire
coverage area.What would you choose?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with two Radio Port (RP) 210s
D. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with one RP 230 and one RP 210
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your company has a branch office down the street from your main office.You want to connect the
networks between the two offices, and physical cabling is not an option.Which wireless devices should
you select for this environment?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. two RP 230s and a Wireless Edge Services xl Module
D. two RP 220s with Yagi antennas and a Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is a function of ProCurve Identity Driven Manager (IDM)?
A. It identifies which wireless users must associate to the wireless network.
B. It enables you to load different configuration files onto your ProCurve Mobility Infrastructure devices.
C. It guides you in creating policies that can be applied, through RADIUS, to either wired or wireless
users.
D. It adds special features to ProCurve Manager (PCM) for configuring radio and wireless security
settings.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which security option was part of the original 802. 11 standard?
A. 802. 1X
B. Shared-key WEP
C. Dynamic Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access with preshared keys (WPA-PSK)
Answer: B

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NO.15 The ProCurve Mobility Manager (PMM) site-planning tool provides an Auto Placement tool.What does
this tool take into account as it places devices on the floor plan?
A. the existing RF interference
B. the obstacles that you have defined
C. other devices already placed on the floor plan
D. the floor plan dimensions and desired capacity
Answer: D

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NO.16 Your company wants to use the 2. 4GHz frequency on both of your ProCurve AP 530 radios.What
must you do so that both radios can use this frequency?
A. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
B. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b, and install an external antenna for radio 2.
C. Install an 802. 11b/g card on radio 2, and set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
D. Set one radio to 802. 11g and one radio to 802. 11b, install an external antenna for radio 1, and
configure radio 1 to use an external antenna.
Answer: B 18. Which ProCurve AP 530 feature is most beneficial for a small to medium business that has
strong security needs?
A. It monitors for excessive probes to detect possible intrusion attempts.
B. Its internal RADIUS server provides standalone support for 802. 1X authentication.
C. Unlike the ProCurve AP 420, it can operate all 16 of its wireless LANs in closed system.
D. It supports 802. 11a, and hackers generally do not check for networks on this frequency.
Answer: B

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19. A network administrator accesses the Marketing WLAN, which is assigned to VLAN 32 on the
ProCurve AP 530.When the AP 530 submits the administrator's login credentials to the RADIUS server,
the RADIUS server returns a dynamic VLAN assignment of 10 to the AP 530.The AP 530 is using the
default settings for dynamic and static VLAN support. In which VLAN does the AP 530 place the network
administrator's traffic?
A. 32, because dynamic VLANs are disabled by default
B. the default management VLAN, because there is a VLAN conflict
C. 10, because dynamic VLAN assignments override static VLAN assignments
D. 32, because static VLAN assignments override dynamic VLAN assignments
Answer: C

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20. You are configuring a WLAN on the ProCurve AP 420.When students, faculty members, and
administrators associate to the WLAN, you want them to receive the dynamic VLAN assignment for their
particular group.However, when staff members associate to the WLAN you want their traffic to be placed
in the VLAN that is assigned to the WLAN. How do you configure the AP 420 to support these VLAN
assignments?
A. You select the Dynamic VLAN option for the WLAN.Static VLANs are supported by default.
B. You select both the Static and Dynamic VLAN options.These global options apply to the entire AP 420.
C. You select the Enable VLAN option for the WLAN.This option enables support for both static and
dynamic VLANs on this WLAN only.
D. You select the Dynamic VLAN option, which enables both static and dynamic VLANs.This global
option applies to the entire AP 420.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What does the slot time determine?
A. the number of seconds the AP waits between sending beacons
B. the length of time the station waits between detecting a transmission and sending a frame
C. the beginning of the 802. 11 frame, which enables the AP and the station to synchronize their
transmissions
D. how long the station can "sleep" before it must become active and check the AP to see if there are any
transmissions waiting for it
Answer: B

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